Is a father's allowance for his independent daughter to manage her own affairs considered as consent for her to marry someone of her choice, whether temporarily or permanently?
[AR_ID:497]
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1 Answer
Peace be upon you.
Sayyid Khamenei and Sayyid Sistani:
Since marriage to an independent virgin girl is conditionally subject to the father's prior permission, it is necessary to obtain his consent in any clear manner, whether through explicit statement or otherwise, as long as it clearly indicates his approval. Therefore, if the father allows his daughter to manage her affairs and it is clear that he intends for her to be independent in both permanent and temporary marriage, this is sufficient. However, it is important to note that merely allowing her to act does not usually indicate that:
1- He may not want this permission to include marriage at all.
2- He may only want to permit permanent marriage and not temporary marriage, as he may believe that temporary marriage could expose his daughter to harm.
3- He may want to permit only temporary marriage and not permanent marriage, as he may feel he has the right, at least in front of others, to have the final say in this matter.
In conclusion, she must ensure his approval through clear indications that demonstrate this, and the identification of such indications varies according to different societies, customs, and the perspectives of fathers and daughters.
Source:
Sayyid Khamenei: Special Inquiry.
Sayyid Sistani: Fiqh for Expatriates, Rules Related to Virgin Girls.